Why does gollum say my precious




















I can almost see Gollum as the Ring come to flesh. He's devious, manipulative, and very cunning, while Smeagol is almost childish and naive.

Maybe he's too childish to realize that it's his choice too, but giving in has become an age-old habit. While Gollum hates Smeagol for holding him back. Gollum spoke like that because he was a severely muddled individual. Find More Posts by Eomer of the Rohirrim. I am not convinced that it is more complex than that. I don't think Gollum put too much thought into how to properly use the word precious.

He just bandied it about rather carelessly, which is precisely the kind of thing that you do if you're having quite tremendous personal and psychological problems as Gollum clearly was.

Ok here's what I think Isildur called the ring precious. Or it was precious truly more like it. I think when Gollum acquired the ring the essence of Isildur sort of stuck to the ring and Gollum started calling the ring his precious. Then as the ring started to consume his mind, the precious started consuming him and becoming a part of him.

The part of him that he called my precious when he was talking to himself. If you remeber Smeagol used pet names while he was still a Hobbit. Give that to us Deagol my love. So i guess Gollum just really likes pet names. I don't really know.

That's just always been the way I've percieved it. Find More Posts by burrahobbit. Ah, the return of the scarily short responses. O Way to go, Eomer and burra. Thread Tools. All times are GMT The time now is PM.

It's lost itself, the nassty nosey thing. It doesn't know the way out. It said so. It doesn't say what it means. It won't say what it's got in its pocketses. It knows. It knows a way in, it must know a way out, yes. It's off to the back-door. It can't get out that way, precious.

Yes, but if it's got the present, our precious present, then goblinses will get it, gollum! They'll find it, they'll find out what it does. We shan't ever be safe again, never, gollum! One of the goblinses will put it on, and then no one will see him. He'll be there but not seen. Not even our clever eyeses will notice him; and he'll come creepsy and tricksy and catch us , gollum, gollum!

If the Baggins has gone that way, we must go quick and see. Not far now. Make haste! Notice that though we can posit two speakers, the grammar doesn't change. The term "precious" is used repeatedly by only one speaker, but the pronoun "we" is used by both. The dialogue from The Two Towers is an exception to the rule. The two different personalities are in conflict for control.

It is because he has spent so long with the ring, and has listened to its dark whispers to the point that he has embodied it with personality and individuality. We refers the the ring and gollum. I've just looked over some of the script, it appears Nim is right. Smeagol refers to himself and Gollum as 'we' for the most part, except near the end of this excerpt, where he slips and says me.

It's a combination of - the fact that Gollum is a split personality, and in some respects sees himself as more than one person. The current answers here have missed some key points that I believe help resolve a number of the questions regarding the plural pronoun uses. Let me reproduce the same quote from the currently accepted answer that was used to make a case that "we" referred to the Ring from The Hobbit. I've bolded all the places where the Ring is being referenced and kept italics for the plural first person pronouns, then also highlighted the three times precious is used by itself.

We doesn't remember all the places we 've visited. The Baggins has got it in its pocketses; the nassty noser has found it , we says. To the back-door, that's it. Yes, but if it's got the present , our precious present , then goblinses will get it , gollum! They'll find it , they'll find out what it does. I won't go so far to say that "we" is never a reference to the Ring in Gollum's speech, as I have not examined all the cases.

But clearly here it is not, and I think likely in most all cases, if not all, it is not. The key evidence he posits is:. It has nothing to do with split personalities or the Ring's effects on him. It seems that this is just the way he always spoke. Smeagol didn't have a split personality until after he took the Ring as his own. Yet when Deagol first finds the Ring, what are the first words out of Smeagol's mouth? But this is by no means an open and shut case. The following points indicate this may well be the initial manifestation of the split:.

However, based on that passage alone, either Wad Chebar's view or the view here could be correct. But there is one more key Tolkien gives to his thoughts on this Frodo felt a strange certainty that in this matter Gollum was for once not so far from the truth as might be suspected; that he had somehow found a way out of Mordor, and at least believed that it was by his own cunning. For one thing, he noted that Gollum used I , and that seemed usually to be a sign, on its rare appearances, that some remnants of old truth and sincerity were for the moment on top.

But even if Gollum could be trusted on this point, Frodo did not forget the wiles of the Enemy. The 'escape' may have been allowed or arranged, and well known in the Dark Tower. And in any case Gollum was plainly keeping a good deal back. I can offer an out-of-universe answer AND an in-universe answer. The out-of-universe answer first: Anyone who lives in the British Isles can tell you that it is not uncommon to use terms like "us" and "we" to refer to oneself.

Your wife might say "Give us a kiss" meaning 'Give me a kiss' ; a patron in a pub often says "Give us a pint of the black stuff" meaning 'Give me a pint of Guinness'. Substituting "we" for "I" is less common, but not unheard of.

The British monarch uses the "Royal We" in official speeches, as another answer mentioned. Commoners use it less frequently, but it still isn't completely unheard of. In a slightly different context, it is sometimes used in the states as well. I can recall the morning after I graduated from high school; I slept at my friend's house and woke up horribly hungover from drinking too much the night before.

My friend's mother opened the curtains, saw me wince at the bright sunlight, and laughed, asking "How are we feeling today? A bit under the weather? This strongly suggests that this is simply the way Smeagol always spoke. It has nothing to do with split personalities, or with himself and the Ring being intertwined: he just talks like that, and he always did. Since the Shire is Tolkien's idealized vision of England before WWI, and people in Britain still speak this way on occasion, this isn't all that surprising.

However, Gollum's habit of unnecessarily pluralizing words I. Someone else said in their answer that Gollum only uses the word "precious" to refer to the Ring- this is incorrect. He also refers to other things as "precious". You can tell when he is talking about the Ring because the "P" in "Precious" is capitalized.

If the "p" is not capitalized, he is referring to something else as "precious". For example:. Now we can eat fish in peace.

No, not in peace, precious. For Precious is lost; yes, lost. Author: Victor de la Cruz Most of my childhood and adult life was spent doing a lot of geeky stuff: watching TV, playing video games and going to the movies. Leave a Reply Cancel reply Enter your comment here Fill in your details below or click an icon to log in:.

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